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Finite, non-simple field extension: is this proof OK?
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Angus Rodgers  
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 More options Jul 24, 8:47 am
Newsgroups: sci.math
From: Angus Rodgers <twir...@bigfoot.com>
Date: Thu, 24 Jul 2008 01:47:17 +0100
Local: Thurs, Jul 24 2008 8:47 am
Subject: Finite, non-simple field extension: is this proof OK?

Exercise 93 in Joseph Rotman's /Galois Theory/ (2nd ed. 1998):

 "Show that Z_p(x, y) is a finite extension of its subfield
 Z_p(x^p, y^p), but it is not a simple extension."

My head still swims when I do abstract algebra (although I'm
slowly becoming more confident and more able to check my own
work). The following proof seems vaguely OK, but I'm not very
confident that I haven't written gibberish somewhere, and/or
made the proof too complicated.  Also, from the placement of
the exercise in the text (after a series of applications of
the Fundamental Theorem of Galois Theory), I thought we were
expected to use Steinitz's theorem (on simple extensions being
those with finitely many intermediate fields) - but I didn't
use it.

Someone please deliver either a pat on the head or a smack on
the backside, so that I know whether I've been a good boy or
a bad boy!

Proof:

Z_p[x, y] is a ring of characteristic p, therefore we have
(f(x, y) + g(x, y))^p = f(x, y)^p + g(x, y)^p, for all f(x, y),
g(x, y) in Z_p[x, y].  Therefore, the set {f(x, y) : f(x, y)^p
= f(x^p, y^p)} is a subring of Z_p[x, y] containing Z_p and x
and y, therefore it is the whole of Z_p[x, y].

Therefore, for all f(x, y)/g(x, y) in Z_p(x, y), we have:

 f(x, y)/g(x, y) = f(x, y)g(x, y)^{p-1}/g(x^p, y^p)

therefore Z_p(x, y) = Z_p(x^p, y^p)[x, y]. This clearly has the
finite basis x^iy^j (i, j = 0, 1, ..., p-1) over Z_p(x^p, y^p).
Therefore, [Z_p(x, y) : Z_p(x^p, y^p)] = p^2.

On the other hand, by what has just been proved, every element
t of Z_p(x, y) satisfies a polynomial equation of the form
t^p - c = 0, where c is in Z_p(x^p, y^p), therefore:

 [Z_p(x^p, y^p)(t) : Z_p(x^p, y^p)] <= p

therefore Z_p(x, y) =/= Z_p(x^p, y^p)(t).

Q.E.D.

(My head's still swimming, so I'd better post this, to see if
I've made an ass of myself.)

--
Angus Rodgers
(twirlip@ eats spam; reply to angusrod@)
Contains mild peril


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Timothy Murphy  
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 More options Jul 24, 6:45 pm
Newsgroups: sci.math
From: Timothy Murphy <gayle...@eircom.net>
Date: Thu, 24 Jul 2008 11:45:45 +0100
Local: Thurs, Jul 24 2008 6:45 pm
Subject: Re: Finite, non-simple field extension: is this proof OK?

Seems fine to me.
The extension [K:k] is of degree p^2.
If u is in K then u^p is in k.
Hence u is of degree p (or 1).

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Angus Rodgers  
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 More options Jul 24, 8:47 pm
Newsgroups: sci.math
From: Angus Rodgers <twir...@bigfoot.com>
Date: Thu, 24 Jul 2008 13:47:20 +0100
Local: Thurs, Jul 24 2008 8:47 pm
Subject: Re: Finite, non-simple field extension: is this proof OK?
On Thu, 24 Jul 2008 11:45:45 +0100, Timothy Murphy

<gayle...@eircom.net> wrote:
>Angus Rodgers wrote:

>> Exercise 93 in Joseph Rotman's /Galois Theory/ (2nd ed. 1998):

>>  "Show that Z_p(x, y) is a finite extension of its subfield
>>  Z_p(x^p, y^p), but it is not a simple extension."

>> [...]

>> Proof:

>> [...]

>Seems fine to me.

That's a relief.  Although I still couldn't see anything wrong with
the proof, I was getting more and more worried, because it doesn't
actually use any Galois theory!

>The extension [K:k] is of degree p^2.
>If u is in K then u^p is in k.
>Hence u is of degree p (or 1).

On that last point: the first draft of my post said that [k(u):k] =
p or 1, but then I began to worry that it might not be true, or at
least wasn't as "obvious" as I'd imagined, and I didn't need it, so
I left it out, giving [k(u):k] <= p < p^2 instead.  Now that I'm
obliged to think about it, I think I've adapted a solution to an
earlier exercise (no. 75) to prove it.  I was going to post this,
too - because I was worried that I was making unnecessarily heavy
weather of something that might perhaps, after all, be "obvious" -
but I see there's a standard result that has it as a special case:
From D. J. H. Garling, /Galois Theory/ (1986), p. 88:

 "Theorem 10.8  Suppose that char K = p > 0 and that

    f(x) = g(x^p) = a_0 + a_1x^p + ... + x^{np}

is monic; then f is irreducible in K[x] if and only if g is
irreducible in K[x], and not all of the coefficients a_i are pth
powers of elements of K."

--
Angus Rodgers
(twirlip@ eats spam; reply to angusrod@)
Contains mild peril


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Mariano Suárez-Alvarez  
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 More options Jul 24, 10:49 pm
Newsgroups: sci.math
From: Mariano Suárez-Alvarez <mariano.suarezalva...@gmail.com>
Date: Thu, 24 Jul 2008 07:49:35 -0700 (PDT)
Local: Thurs, Jul 24 2008 10:49 pm
Subject: Re: Finite, non-simple field extension: is this proof OK?
On Jul 24, 9:47 am, Angus Rodgers <twir...@bigfoot.com> wrote:

You should worry less... :-)

-- m


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Angus Rodgers  
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 More options Jul 24, 11:08 pm
Newsgroups: sci.math
From: Angus Rodgers <twir...@bigfoot.com>
Date: Thu, 24 Jul 2008 16:08:50 +0100
Local: Thurs, Jul 24 2008 11:08 pm
Subject: Re: Finite, non-simple field extension: is this proof OK?
On Thu, 24 Jul 2008 07:49:35 -0700 (PDT), Mariano Suárez-Alvarez

<mariano.suarezalva...@gmail.com> wrote:
>You should worry less... :-)

You caught me just as I was busy worrying that perhaps I should
post another followup, explaining that I didn't mean to suggest
that that general result was needed to prove the special case -
and then detailing my proof, and worrying some more about the
different proof of a slightly more general result that I found
in another book ...  It's sunny outside.  I'm going shopping.  
No more maths.  :-)

--
Angus Rodgers
(twirlip@ eats spam; reply to angusrod@)
Contains mild peril


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