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Newsgroups: sci.math
From: The World Wide Wade <aderamey.a...@comcast.net>
Date: Wed, 23 Jul 2008 19:23:18 -0700
Local: Thurs, Jul 24 2008 10:23 am
Subject: Re: simple probability question
In article
<63a9e35e-5233-402b-969f-e249c24a2...@k37g2000hsf.googlegroups.com>, kaushik.sinha...@gmail.com wrote: That can't be true for all d > 0. For example, let d = e^(-1/n). Then > I found this result in a research paper. not sure how to derive it. > any help?? > suppose an n dimensional unit vector v=(v1,v2,...,vn) is chosen > uniformly at random from an n dimensional unit sphere. clearly > v1^2+v2^2+...+vn^2=1-----------------(1) > Then for any delta>0, with probability at least (1-delta) , we have > v1^2>=1/(n*log(1/delta)) you are saying v1^2 >= 1 with probability >= 1 - e^(-1/n). > This means that we have to show that the probability, P[v1^2<1/
> (n*log(1/delta))] is bounded by delta > I don't know how to show this but what I can see is that there exists You must Sign in before you can post messages.
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