kaushik.sinha...@gmail.com wrote:
> On Jul 23, 10:23 pm, The World Wide Wade <aderamey.a...@comcast.net>
> wrote:
> > In article
> > <63a9e35e-5233-402b-969f-e249c24a2...@k37g2000hsf.googlegroups.com>,

> >  kaushik.sinha...@gmail.com wrote:
> > > I found this result in a research paper. not sure how to derive it.
> > > any help??
> > > suppose an n dimensional unit vector v=(v1,v2,...,vn) is chosen
> > > uniformly at random from an n dimensional unit sphere. clearly
> > > v1^2+v2^2+...+vn^2=1-----------------(1)
> > > Then for any delta>0, with probability at least (1-delta) , we have
> > > v1^2>=1/(n*log(1/delta))

> > That can't be true for all d > 0. For example, let d = e^(-1/n). Then
> > you are saying v1^2 >= 1 with probability >= 1 - e^(-1/n).

> > > This means that we have to show that the probability,  P[v1^2<1/
> > > (n*log(1/delta))] is bounded by delta

> > > I don't know how to show this but what I can see is that there exists
> > > one i, such that vi^2>=1/n ...- Hide quoted text -

> > - Show quoted text -

> restrict delta to 0 <delta < 1/2