>  kaushik.sinha...@gmail.com wrote:
> > I found this result in a research paper. not sure how to derive it.
> > any help??
> > suppose an n dimensional unit vector v=(v1,v2,...,vn) is chosen
> > uniformly at random from an n dimensional unit sphere. clearly
> > v1^2+v2^2+...+vn^2=1-----------------(1)
> > Then for any delta>0, with probability at least (1-delta) , we have
> > v1^2>=1/(n*log(1/delta))

> That can't be true for all d > 0. For example, let d = e^(-1/n). Then
> you are saying v1^2 >= 1 with probability >= 1 - e^(-1/n).

> > This means that we have to show that the probability,  P[v1^2<1/
> > (n*log(1/delta))] is bounded by delta

> > I don't know how to show this but what I can see is that there exists
> > one i, such that vi^2>=1/n ...- Hide quoted text -

> - Show quoted text -