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Newsgroups: sci.math
From: The World Wide Wade <aderamey.a...@comcast.net>
Date: Thu, 24 Jul 2008 00:17:07 -0700
Local: Thurs, Jul 24 2008 3:17 pm
Subject: Re: simple probability question
In article
<63a9e35e-5233-402b-969f-e249c24a2...@k37g2000hsf.googlegroups.com>, kaushik.sinha...@gmail.com wrote: Do you mean an (n+1)-dimensional unit vector from an n-dimensional > I found this result in a research paper. not sure how to derive it. > any help?? > suppose an n dimensional unit vector v=(v1,v2,...,vn) is chosen > uniformly at random from an n dimensional unit sphere. unit sphere? > clearly And what does 1-----------------(1) mean? > v1^2+v2^2+...+vn^2=1-----------------(1) > Then for any delta>0, with probability at least (1-delta) , we have
> v1^2>=1/(n*log(1/delta)) > This means that we have to show that the probability, P[v1^2<1/ > I don't know how to show this but what I can see is that there exists You must Sign in before you can post messages.
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